Was Lewis wrong?

This may seem rather unimportant, but it bothers me. A modern translation (NIV) of Luke 11:27-28 reads: “As Jesus was saying these things, a woman in the crowd called out, ‘Blessed is the mother who gave you birth and nursed you.’ He replied, ‘Blessed rather are those who hear the word of God and obey it.’ Here is what Lewis writes about those verses in a letter of May 8, 1945: " [the Roman Church’s] theology about the B[lessed].V[irgin].M[ary] I reject because it seems utterly foreign to the New Testament: where indeed the words ‘Blessed is the womb that bore thee’ receive a rejoinder pointing in exactly the opposite direction”. These seem to me very strange words: “exactly the opposite direction”. It’s almost as if Lewis is saying that Christ is saying that his mother is not “blessed”, which certainly would make no sense. But in any case, the word “rather” is taken to have a negative sense. But here is what a translator of Greek, Fr. Christopher Stade, writes about that word (translation of “The Explanation by Blessed Theophylact of the Holy Gospel According to St. Luke”, page 130) : “The Greek word menounge… rendered …in the KJV as ‘yea, rather’, is the same word which occurs in Phil. 3:8, where the KJV gives ‘yea, doubtless’ and in Rom. 10:18 where the KJV gives ‘Yes verily’. The force of menounge is that it corrects the previous statement not by negating it but by amplifying it.”
So it seems that the word “rather” in the King James Version also has the same positive meaning that it sometimes has in contemporary English, e.g. “I rather like it”, And so it seems that Lewis is wrong in his interpretation of Luke 11:28. That is strange, given his linguistic skills. But my feeling is that this was something that he just threw off in reply to one of many Catholic correspondents asking him why he wasn’t a Catholic, without seriously analyzing the Greek text.
So I have come to the conclusion that most (not all) modern English translations of Luke 11:28 are wrong, and that the verse should properly read, (as in the Godbey New Testament): “And He said, Truly blessed are those hearing the word of God, and keeping it” (giving HIs Mother as an example).
This is the same (positive) meaning that that verse has in the Russian translation. And Manuel, is that also true of the Spanish translation?

Dimitry

“Love is patient and kind. Love is not jealous or boastful or proud or rude. Love does not demand its own way. Love is not irritable, and it keeps no record of when it has been wronged. It is never glad about injustice but rejoices whenever the truth wins out. Love never gives up, never loses faith, is always hopeful, and endures through every circumstance. Love will last forever.” (1 Corinthians 13: 4-8)

I have looked at half a dozen Spanish translations of Luke 11:27-28 and all of them (but one) use the translation “más bien,” which is equivalent to the English “rather” and may have a negative connotation. The other one uses “antes,” which is equivalent.

However, when this paragraph is read during the Mass, the preacher usually mentions St. Augustine’s interpretation. He stood up for the positive interpretation that you have proposed. In Augustine’s words (my Spanish to English translation of his sermon): Hence, Mary is also blessed because she heard the word of God and fulfilled it; she carried in her bosom the body of Christ, but more than that she kept in her mind the truth of Christ.

Regards,

My Spanish is almost as weak as my Greek, but wouldn’t “más bien” be rendered in English as simply “better”? And if so, in context, the meaning would be not to negate or deny the statement that Mary was blessed, but rather to affirm that those who hear and keep God’s word are more blessed. And, while that isn’t the most common English translation, a number of English translations make this explicit:

  • The CJB reads, “Far more blessed are those who hear the word of God and obey it!”
  • CEV: “That’s true, but the people who are really blessed are the ones who hear and obey God’s message!”
  • DLNT: “More-than-that, blessed are the ones hearing the word of God and keeping it”.
  • EHV: “Even more blessed are those who hear the word of God and keep it.”
  • HCSB: “Even more, those who hear the word of God and keep it are blessed!”
  • JB Phillips: “Yes, but a far greater blessing to hear the word of God and obey it.”
  • Living Bible: “Yes, but even more blessed are all who hear the Word of God and put it into practice.”
  • The Message: “Even more blessed are those who hear God’s Word and guard it with their lives!”
  • MEV: “Indeed, blessed are those who hear the word of God and keep it.”
  • NKJV: “More than that, blessed are those who hear the word of God and keep it!”
    • This is probably the most “mainstream” of the translations with such a rendering here
  • NLT: “But even more blessed are all who hear the word of God and put it into practice.”

“Rather” (as it’s rendered in most other English translations) might thus be read as “in preference to that,” not “instead of that,” and that meaning is captured in a couple of my English dictionary’s[1] meanings for that word: “3. more properly or justly; . . . 5. more truly”, both of which it lists before “on the contrary.”

As a matter of basic exegesis, allowing scripture to interpret scripture, it doesn’t seem we can understand Jesus as denying Mary’s blessedness in light of Luke 1:28-30 and 1:42. But it’d be entirely consistent for Jesus to emphasize or prioritize “whoever does the will of God” over his blood relations in Luke 11, as he does in Mark 3:33-35, Matthew 12:49-50, and Luke 8:21. This would be consistent with the translations above–Mary is blessed to have been his mother, but greater blessing yet comes from hearing and keeping the word of God.

This position is noted in Matthew Henry’s Bible commentary:

The occasion which Christ took from this to pronounce them more happy who are his faithful and obedient followers than she was who bore and nursed him. He does not deny what this woman said, nor refuse her respect to him and his mother; but leads her from this to that which was of higher consideration, and which more concerned her . . .

The notes in the Reformation Study Bible concur.

“Most translations are wrong” is a dangerous position to take (particularly if you, like I, are not a Greek scholar), and I don’t believe it’s at all necessary here. Most (English) translations use “rather”[2] like the KJV, but that need not be read as “instead of,” particularly when doing so (and thus denying that Mary is blessed) raises significant exegetical issues. It may be that “rather” isn’t the best word choice, but I think it goes too far to say that it’s “wrong.”

So does this mean Lewis was wrong? I’m not sure it does. If he’s denying (or understanding Christ as denying) that Mary was blessed, yes, we’d have to say he was wrong. But in the context in which he was writing, it seems more likely that he was addressing the Roman Catholic teaching that Mary was uniquely[3] or supremely blessed. And in that regard, Luke 11:28 is much more relevant–even if Jesus is not denying Mary’s blessedness as his mother (which I agree he is not), he cannot but be downplaying that blessing in favor of the blessing of hearing and keeping God’s word. To the extent Mary did that (which I don’t deny, though we have precious little scriptural evidence of that fact after his birth), she is more greatly blessed.


  1. Random House Webster’s College Dictionary, 1995. ↩︎

  2. A few translations use some form of “on the contrary,” and I’d agree that’s at least a questionable translation, at least on exegetical grounds. ↩︎

  3. i.e., especially highly blessed–if it’s in any way a blessing to be Christ’s mother, that must necessarily be a unique blessing, as he has only one mother. But that need not mean that it’s a uniquely great or high blessing. ↩︎

all of them (but one) use the translation “más bien,” which is equivalent to the English “rather” and may have a negative connotation.

My Spanish is almost as weak as my Greek, but wouldn’t “más bien” be rendered in English as simply “better”?

No; “better” in Spanish is “mejor,” not “más bien,” which is practically equivalent to the English “rather.” This is an example of irregular augmentatives in both languages: good-better-best; bueno-mejor-óptimo.

So does this mean Lewis was wrong? I’m not sure it does. If he’s denying (or understanding Christ as denying) that Mary was blessed, yes, we’d have to say he was wrong. But in the context in which he was writing, it seems more likely that he was addressing the Roman Catholic teaching that Mary was uniquely[3] or supremely blessed. And in that regard, Luke 11:28 is much more relevant–even if Jesus is not denying Mary’s blessedness as his mother (which I agree he is not), he cannot but be downplaying that blessing in favor of the blessing of hearing and keeping God’s word. To the extent Mary did that (which I don’t deny, though we have precious little scriptural evidence of that fact after his birth), she is more greatly blessed.

But consider: when Mary said “Yes” to God (“I am the Lord’s servant,” Mary answered. “May your word to me be fulfilled”, Lk.1:38) she fulfilled the second part of Christ’s words ( “rather those hearing the word of God, and keeping it”) better than anybody. She heard the word of God (through the angel) and kept it (by her acceptance). And this in spite of the fact that she was risking her honor and her life by keeping the word of God.

So, first, Jesus was not denying Mary’s blessing, but enforcing it; and second, in the circumstances, it’s obvious to me that Mary was uniquely and supremely blessed. And yes, I am a Roman Catholic :slight_smile:

Regards,

I suspect a big part of this issue arises from the use of the term “blessed” in connection with the extra-biblical concept of canonization of saints. Apart from the special meaning attached to the word in that context I believe we can find a multitude of examples in scripture of people being described as “blessed” in a more generic sense. That certainly is as true of Mary as it is of any believer.

| dan Geek the Magic Dragon
November 17 |

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Manuel_Alfonseca:

all of them (but one) use the translation “más bien,” which is equivalent to the English “rather” and may have a negative connotation.

My Spanish is almost as weak as my Greek, but wouldn’t “más bien” be rendered in English as simply “better”? And if so, in context, the meaning would be not to negate or deny the statement that Mary was blessed, but rather to affirm that those who hear and keep God’s word are more blessed. And, while that isn’t the most common English translation, a number of English translations make this explicit:

  • The CJB reads, “Far more blessed are those who hear the word of God and obey it!”
  • CEV: “That’s true, but the people who are really blessed are the ones who hear and obey God’s message!”
  • DLNT: “More-than-that, blessed are the ones hearing the word of God and keeping it”.
  • EHV: “Even more blessed are those who hear the word of God and keep it.”
  • HCSB: “Even more, those who hear the word of God and keep it are blessed!”
  • JB Phillips: “Yes, but a far greater blessing to hear the word of God and obey it.”
  • Living Bible: “Yes, but even more blessed are all who hear the Word of God and put it into practice.”
  • The Message: “Even more blessed are those who hear God’s Word and guard it with their lives!”
  • MEV: “Indeed, blessed are those who hear the word of God and keep it.”
  • NKJV: “More than that, blessed are those who hear the word of God and keep it!”
    • This is probably the most “mainstream” of the translations with such a rendering here
  • NLT: “But even more blessed are all who hear the word of God and put it into practice.”

“Rather” (as it’s rendered in most other English translations) might thus be read as “in preference to that,” not “instead of that,” and that meaning is captured in a couple of my English dictionary’s[1] meanings for that word: “3. more properly or justly; . . . 5. more truly”, both of which it lists before “on the contrary.”

As a matter of basic exegesis, allowing scripture to interpret scripture, it doesn’t seem we can understand Jesus as denying Mary’s blessedness in light of Luke 1:28-30 and 1:42. But it’d be entirely consistent for Jesus to emphasize or prioritize “whoever does the will of God” over his blood relations in Luke 11, as he does in Mark 3:33-35, Matthew 12:49-50, and Luke 8:21. This would be consistent with the translations above–Mary is blessed to have been his mother, but greater blessing yet comes from hearing and keeping the word of God.

This position is noted in Matthew Henry’s Bible commentary:

The occasion which Christ took from this to pronounce them more happy who are his faithful and obedient followers than she was who bore and nursed him. He does not deny what this woman said, nor refuse her respect to him and his mother; but leads her from this to that which was of higher consideration, and which more concerned her . . .

The notes in the Reformation Study Bible concur.

dzarechnak:

So I have come to the conclusion that most (not all) modern English translations of Luke 11:28 are wrong, and that the verse should properly read, (as in the Godbey New Testament): “And He said, Truly blessed are those hearing the word of God, and keeping it” (giving HIs Mother as an example).

“Most translations are wrong” is a dangerous position to take (particularly if you, like I, are not a Greek scholar), and I don’t believe it’s at all necessary here. Most (English) translations use “rather”[2] like the KJV, but that need not be read as “instead of,” particularly when doing so (and thus denying that Mary is blessed) raises significant exegetical issues. It may be that “rather” isn’t the best word choice, but I think it goes too far to say that it’s “wrong.”

So does this mean Lewis was wrong? I’m not sure it does. If he’s denying (or understanding Christ as denying) that Mary was blessed, yes, we’d have to say he was wrong. But in the context in which he was writing, it seems more likely that he was addressing the Roman Catholic teaching that Mary was uniquely[3] or supremely blessed. And in that regard, Luke 11:28 is much more relevant–even if Jesus is not denying Mary’s blessedness as his mother (which I agree he is not), he cannot but be downplaying that blessing in favor of the blessing of hearing and keeping God’s word. To the extent Mary did that (which I don’t deny, though we have precious little scriptural evidence of that fact after his birth), she is more greatly blessed.